Electromagnetic wave


An electromagnetic wave is a wave produced by the periodic variation and mutual induction of an electric and a magnetic field. It is a transverse wave, which means that the fields are always orthogonal to the direction of propagation.

Electromagnetic waves are described through Maxwell's equations. In the vacuum, with no charges whatsoever, the equations can be decoupled to read

2E=ε0μ02Et2,2B=ε0μ02Bt2\nabla ^{2}\mathbf{E}=\varepsilon_{0}\mu_{0}\frac{ \partial ^{2}\mathbf{E} }{ \partial t^{2} } ,\qquad \nabla ^{2}\mathbf{B}=\varepsilon_{0}\mu_{0}\frac{ \partial ^{2}\mathbf{B} }{ \partial t^{2} }

Both of these are examples of the wave equation and thus E\mathbf{E} and B\mathbf{B} accept wave solutions. Their phase velocity must be

c=1ε0μ0c=\frac{1}{\sqrt{ \varepsilon_{0}\mu_{0} }}

which is the speed of light.

In the vacuum

Let's start by analyzing the behavior of electromagnetic sine waves. These are, as always, of paramount importance since all waves can be decomposed into a Fourier series of sine waves. Thus, understanding sine waves in theory means that you understand all other waves. In complex notation, they read

E~=E~0ei(kxωt),B~=B~0ei(kxωt)\tilde{\mathbf{E}}=\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0}e^{i(kx-\omega t)},\qquad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}=\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{0}e^{i(kx-\omega t)}

assuming propagation on the xx axis. The real fields can be found by taking the real part of the complex field. Now, this equation is entirely determined from the wave equation. However, as it is, it cannot be correct. This is because Maxwell's equation impose specific constraints on the possible functions that E\mathbf{E} and B\mathbf{B} can be. Here we bypassed all of that by arbitrarily picking a known solution to the wave equation. While it is true that all vacuum solutions of Maxwell's equation obey the wave equation, the converse is not necessarily true: not all solutions to the wave equation obey Maxwell's equations. In light of this, we should analyze Maxwell's equation to figure out what these additional constraints are.

Maxwell's equation determine the fields, so the conditions must be applied to E~0\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0} and B~0\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{0}. These conditions are the values of the Divergence and Curl. The divergence of these fields in a vacuum is zero, so it must be that

E~0,x=B~0,x=0\tilde{E}_{0,x}=\tilde{B}_{0,x}=0

Intuitively, this is because the divergence in a way represents propagation. As such, if it must be zero, then the field cannot possibly extend in the direction of propagation. But if the oscillation cannot be in the direction of propagation, then all electromagnetic waves must be transverse!

That's it for divergence. The curls on the other hand tell us that the fields induce each other, so clearly there has to be some connection between electric waves and magnetic waves. The curl of E\mathbf{E} (Faraday's law) gives one connection (by looking at the components of the Vector product directly):

×E~=E~zxy^+E~yxz^=E~0,zikei(kxωt)y^+E~0,yikei(kxωt)z^=ik(E~zy^+E~yz^)\nabla\times \tilde{\mathbf{E}}=-\frac{ \partial \tilde{E}_{z} }{ \partial x } \hat{\mathbf{y}}+\frac{ \partial \tilde{E}_{y} }{ \partial x } \hat{\mathbf{z}}=-\tilde{E}_{0,z}ike^{i(kx-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{y}}+\tilde{E}_{0,y}ike^{i(kx-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{z}}=ik(-\tilde{E}_{z}\hat{\mathbf{y}}+\tilde{E}_{y}\hat{\mathbf{z}})

and also

×E~=B~t=B~0iωei(kxωt)=iωB~=iω(B~yy^+B~zz^)\nabla\times \tilde{\mathbf{E}}=-\frac{ \partial \tilde{\mathbf{B}} }{ \partial t }=\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{0}i\omega e^{i(kx-\omega t)}=i\omega \tilde{\mathbf{B}}=i\omega(\tilde{B}_{y}\hat{\mathbf{y}}+\tilde{B}_{z}\hat{\mathbf{z}})

(since the xx component is guaranteed zero). So, comparing the two:

kE~0,z=ωB~0,y,kE~0,y=ωB~0,z-k\tilde{E}_{0,z}=\omega \tilde{B}_{0,y},\qquad k\tilde{E}_{0,y}=\omega \tilde{B}_{0,z}

which is equivalent to the vector product

B~0=kω(x^×E~0)\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{0}=\frac{k}{\omega}(\hat{\mathbf{x}}\times \tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0})

The curl of B\mathbf{B} provides the same result. This should be enough to convince you that the electric and magnetic parts of the wave not only are symmetric, but also strongly coupled, for they must be both in phase and perpendicular (due to the vector product). Their real amplitudes must be related by

B0=kωE0=1cE0(1)B_{0}=\frac{k}{\omega}E_{0}=\frac{1}{c}E_{0}\tag{1}

where c=ω/kc=\omega/k is the phase velocity of the wave, coinciding with the speed of light.

For example, suppose you have a wave moving on the xx axis. Suppose also that the electric field moves on the yy axis. Then, the magnetic one must occupy the last remaining axis, zz. Their equations in general are of the sort

E~(x,t)=E~0ei(kxωt)y^,B~(x,t)=B~0ei(kxωt)z^\tilde{\mathbf{E}}(x,t)=\tilde{E}_{0}e^{i(kx-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{y}},\qquad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}(x,t)=\tilde{B}_{0}e^{i(kx-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{z}}

Apply the previous conditions to get

E~(x,t)=E~0ei(kxωt)y^,B~(x,t)=1cE~0ei(kxωt)z^\tilde{\mathbf{E}}(x,t)=\tilde{E}_{0}e^{i(kx-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{y}},\qquad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}(x,t)=\frac{1}{c}\tilde{E}_{0}e^{i(kx-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{z}}

Take the real part and finally you have a electromagnetic sine wave on the xx axis:

E(x,t)=E0cos(kxωt+φ)y^,B(x,t)=1cE0cos(kxωt+φ)z^\mathbf{E}(x,t)=E_{0}\cos(kx-\omega t+\varphi)\hat{\mathbf{y}},\qquad \mathbf{B}(x,t)=\frac{1}{c}E_{0}\cos(kx-\omega t+\varphi)\hat{\mathbf{z}}

This is an electromagnetic wave propagating over x^\hat{\mathbf{x}} that is polarized on y^\hat{\mathbf{y}} (by convention, it is the direction of E\mathbf{E} that specifies the polarization). The magnetic field needs to be orthogonal to both propagation and E\mathbf{E}, so it ends up on z^\hat{\mathbf{z}}.

Of course, electromagnetic waves can propagate in any direction, so we can generalize further by introducing the wavevector k\mathbf{k} and the polarization vector n^\hat{\mathbf{n}}:

E~(r,t)=E~0ei(krωt)n^B~(r,t)=1cE~0ei(krωt)(k^×n^)=1ck^×E~\boxed{\begin{align} \tilde{\mathbf{E}}(\mathbf{r},t)&=\tilde{E}_{0}e^{i(\mathbf{k}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{n}} \\ \tilde{\mathbf{B}}(\mathbf{r},t)&=\frac{1}{c}\tilde{E}_{0}e^{i(\mathbf{k}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t)}(\hat{\mathbf{k}}\times \hat{\mathbf{n}})=\frac{1}{c}\hat{\mathbf{k}}\times \tilde{\mathbf{E}} \end{align}}

whose real part is

E(r,t)=E0cos(krωt+φ)n^B(r,t)=1cE0cos(krωt+φ)(k^×n^)=1ck^×E\boxed{\begin{align} \mathbf{E}(\mathbf{r},t)&=E_{0}\cos(\mathbf{k}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t+\varphi)\hat{\mathbf{n}} \\ \mathbf{B}(\mathbf{r},t)&=\frac{1}{c}E_{0}\cos(\mathbf{k}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t+\varphi)(\hat{\mathbf{k}}\times \hat{\mathbf{n}})=\frac{1}{c}\hat{\mathbf{k}}\times \mathbf{E} \end{align}}

Transported quantities

Electromagnetic waves are really just traveling electromagnetic fields. As such, they carry all quantities that the fields themselves do, chiefly energy and momentum.

The energy density of an electromagnetic field is

u=12(ε0E2+1μ0B2)u=\frac{1}{2}\left( \varepsilon_{0}E^{2}+ \frac{1}{\mu_{0}}B^{2} \right)

In case of a sine wave, we can use (1)(1) to state

B2=E2c2=μ0ε0E2B^{2}=\frac{E^{2}}{c^{2}}=\mu_{0}\varepsilon_{0}E^{2}

and so

u=ε0E2=ε0E02cos2(krωt+φ)\boxed{u=\varepsilon_{0}E^{2}=\varepsilon_{0}E_{0}^{2}\cos ^{2}(\mathbf{k}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t+\varphi)}

Evidently, only the electric field matters in the energy transfer, as the magnetic field's contribution is identical to that of the electric field1. We can say more about this by looking at the Poynting vector, which represent the energy flux density (energy per unit area per unit time). Plugging in the previous equation for BB gives

S=cε0E02cos2(krωt+φ)k^=cu k^\mathbf{S}=c\varepsilon_{0}E_{0}^{2}\cos ^{2}(\mathbf{k}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t+\varphi)\hat{\mathbf{k}}=cu\ \hat{\mathbf{k}}

Perhaps unsurprisingly, the energy moves in the exact direction of the wave. Finally, the momentum density carried by the field is

g=uck^\mathbf{g}=\frac{u}{c}\hat{\mathbf{k}}

Generally speaking though, electromagnetic wave frequencies are fast. So fast in fact that any measurement done at a macroscopic level will surely encompass a large number of cycles of oscillation. As such, a reading of any of these quantities is going to be smeared across so many cycles it essentially just becomes the time average of the quantity. As such, it's in our interest to take a look at the mathematical predictions of these averages. Since the only time-variable part in these quantities is the square cosine, we just need its average over a full cycle of period TT:

cos2()=1T0Tcos2(kr2πTt+φ)dt=12\langle \cos ^{2}(\ldots) \rangle = \frac{1}{T}\int_{0}^{T}\cos ^{2}\left( \mathbf{k}\cdot \mathbf{r}- \frac{2\pi}{T} t+\varphi \right)dt=\frac{1}{2}

Thus, the average energy density, Poynting vector and momentum density are

u=ε02E02,S=ε0c2E02 k^,g=ε02cE02 k^\boxed{\langle u \rangle =\frac{\varepsilon_{0}}{2}E_{0}^{2},\quad \langle \mathbf{S} \rangle =\frac{\varepsilon_{0}c}{2}E_{0}^{2}\ \hat{\mathbf{k}},\quad \langle \mathbf{g} \rangle =\frac{\varepsilon_{0}}{2c}E_{0}^{2}\ \hat{\mathbf{k}}}

Notably, energy density and momentum density (and by extension energy and momentum themselves) are related by

u=gcE=Vudτ=cVgdτ=pc\langle u \rangle =\langle g \rangle c\quad\Rightarrow \quad E=\int_{\mathcal{V}}\langle u \rangle d\tau=c\int_{\mathcal{V}}\langle g \rangle d\tau=pc

The energy of a wave is given by the momentum it carries times the speed of light. "Neat," you might say, but keep this in mind when you look at quantum physics, as it might just reappear somewhere else (and if you've already studied quantum physics, you might recognize a sneaky first appearance of the Planck formula and the de Broglie formula).

In the context of electromagnetic waves, the irradiance of the wave is the time average of the Poynting vector on an incident surface. If the surface is perpendicular to the wave, its normal unit vector is k^\hat{\mathbf{k}}, so

ISk^=ε0c2E02I\equiv \langle \mathbf{S} \rangle \cdot \hat{\mathbf{k}} =\frac{\varepsilon_{0}c}{2}E_{0}^{2}

(which coincides with the norm of the Poynting vector, but it's a useful reminder that irradiance only makes sense when projected over a surface, so orientation matters.) Since momentum is conserved, whenever light collides with something, a part of its momentum will be transferred to it. If light lands perpendicularly (normal incidence) and the receiver is a so-called "perfect absorber" (meaning, it absorbs 100% of the momentum that hits it), we can give a mathematical expression of this transfer. In a time Δt\Delta t, the transfer is determined by the momentum density as Δp=gAcΔt\Delta \mathbf{p}=\langle \mathbf{g} \rangle Ac\Delta t. But remember that by Newton's second law, a variation in momentum is a force, so when spread over the area AA that's being lit up, we get a pressure:

P=1AΔpΔt=ε02E02=Ic\boxed{P=\frac{1}{A} \frac{\Delta \lvert \mathbf{p} \rvert }{\Delta t}=\frac{\varepsilon_{0}}{2}E_{0}^{2}=\frac{I}{c}}

This pressure is known as radiation pressure and, in general, it is extremely weak. Weak enough that it's fair if you assumed that electromagnetic radiation was simply incapable of applying a force to something. But it is there, all because momentum conservation must be preserved. By the way, if the receiver was a "perfect reflector" (meaning, it reflects 100% of the momentum), the pressure would be doubled since the effective Δp\Delta \lvert \mathbf{p} \rvert would itself be doubled (since we'd be sending pp\mathbf{p}\mapsto-\mathbf{p} instead of p0\mathbf{p}\mapsto0). Fun fact: radiation pressure is actually a viable method of spacecraft propulsion. Basically, you make a very large reflective surface, point it a powerful light source (a star, realistically) and wait for the light to exert pressure to accelerate the ship. This kind of propulsion device is called a lightsail. It's weak propulsion of course, but the benefit is that it is "free", in that it requires no fuel, just like a normal wind sail.

In dielectrics

To develop a theory of electromagnetic waves in matter, we turn to the Maxwell equations in matter. We start off in an analogous way as the vacuum case by setting the free charge and free current to zero; this corresponds to claiming with are working with dielectrics, where free charges are scarce. Conductors require more refined analysis, which we'll defer to later. Still, even in this no-free-charge setting we quickly hit an impasse. The behavior of waves in matter is, unsurprisingly, dependent on the nature of the material itself, namely how the electric displacement and auxiliary field behave. We can however restrict ourselves to the usual and generally quite useful case of linear, homogeneous and isotropic materials, in which the shapes of D\mathbf{D} and H\mathbf{H} are well-known. In such a setting, we get

2E=εμ2Et2,2B=εμ2Bt2\nabla ^{2}\mathbf{E}=\varepsilon\mu\frac{ \partial ^{2}\mathbf{E} }{ \partial t^{2} } ,\qquad \nabla ^{2}\mathbf{B}=\varepsilon\mu\frac{ \partial ^{2}\mathbf{B} }{ \partial t^{2} }

This form is near-identical to the vacuum one, with the difference of using general permittivity and permeability instead of their vacuum versions. This leads to a different shape for the phase velocity:

v=1εμ=1ε0εrμ0μr=1ε0μ0c1εrμr1/n=cnv=\frac{1}{\sqrt{ \varepsilon \mu }}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{ \varepsilon_{0}\varepsilon_{r}\mu_{0}\mu_{r} }}=\underbrace{ \frac{1}{\sqrt{ \varepsilon_{0} \mu_{0} }} }_{ c } \underbrace{ \frac{1}{\sqrt{ \varepsilon_{r}\mu_{r} }} }_{ 1/n }=\frac{c}{n}

The quantity n=εrμr1n=\sqrt{ \varepsilon_{r}\mu_{r} }\geq1 is called the refractive index of the material and, among other things, determines a slowdown of the wave when in matter. Most materials are not really magnetic, so in many cases μr1\mu_{r}\simeq1 and nεrn\simeq \sqrt{ \varepsilon_{r} }.

The transported quantities of these waves are largely the same and can be found by substituting ε0ε\varepsilon_{0}\to \varepsilon, μ0μ\mu_{0}\to \mu and cc/nc\to c/n, so

u=12(ϵE2+1μB2),S=1μ(E×B)u=\frac{1}{2}\left( \epsilon E^{2}+ \frac{1}{\mu}B^{2} \right),\quad \mathbf{S}=\frac{1}{\mu}(\mathbf{E}\times \mathbf{B})

In case of a sine wave, we have the same condition as (1)(1), so

u=εE02,S=εcE02k^u=\varepsilon E_{0}^{2},\quad \mathbf{S}=\varepsilon cE_{0}^{2}\hat{\mathbf{k}}

and then averaged

u=ε2E02,S=εc2nE02 k^\boxed{\langle u \rangle =\frac{\varepsilon}{2}E_{0}^{2},\quad \langle \mathbf{S} \rangle =\frac{\varepsilon c}{2n}E_{0}^{2}\ \hat{\mathbf{k}}}

You might notice the suspicious lack of momentum density here. That's because the momentum of a wave in matter is, as of today, still a matter of debate, so no formula here.

Interface reflection and transmission

As all waves, electromagnetic waves too exhibit interesting behavior when they reach the "end of the line", that is, when they collide with an interface between two different materials. Say we've got a wave traveling over the xx direction and there's an interface on the yzyz plane at x=0x=0 so that x<0x<0 is one material with refractive index n1n_{1} and x>0x>0 is another with refractive index n2n_{2}. Say also for simplicity that the wave is linearly polarized on the yy axis and it has an angular frequency of ω\omega and a wavenumber k1k_{1}. The wave equations are

E~I(x,t)=E~0,Iei(k1xωt)y^,B~I(x,t)=n1cE~0,Iei(k1xωt)z^\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{I}(x,t)=\tilde{E}_{0,I}e^{i(k_{1}x-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{y}},\quad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{I}(x,t)=\frac{n_{1}}{c}\tilde{E}_{0,I}e^{i(k_{1}x-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{z}}

We know from the general theory of waves (see Wave equation > Boundary conditions) that an incident wave to a surface gives rise to a reflected and a transmitted wave, whose nature depends on the boundary conditions. These waves are

E~R(x,t)=E~0,Rei(k1xωt)y^,B~R(x,t)=n1cE~0,Rei(k1xωt)z^\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{R}(x,t)=\tilde{E}_{0,R}e^{i(-k_{1}x-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{y}},\quad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{R}(x,t)=-\frac{n_{1}}{c}\tilde{E}_{0,R}e^{i(-k_{1}x-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{z}}

for the reflected one and

E~T(x,t)=E~0,Tei(k2xωt)y^,B~T(x,t)=n2cE~0,Tei(k2xωt)z^\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{T}(x,t)=\tilde{E}_{0,T}e^{i(k_{2}x-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{y}},\quad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{T}(x,t)=\frac{n_{2}}{c}\tilde{E}_{0,T}e^{i(k_{2}x-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{z}}

The boundary conditions are given by Maxwell's equations

ε1E1ε2E2=σfE1E2=0B1B2=01μ1B11μ2B2=0\begin{align} \varepsilon_{1}E_{1}^{\perp}-\varepsilon_{2}E_{2}^{\perp} & =\sigma_{f} & \mathbf{E}_{1}^{\parallel}-\mathbf{E}_{2}^{\parallel} & =\mathbf{0} \\ B_{1}^{\perp}-B_{2}^{\perp} & =0 & \frac{1}{\mu_{1}}\mathbf{B}_{1}^{\parallel}- \frac{1}{\mu_{2}}\mathbf{B}_{2}^{\parallel}&=\mathbf{0} \end{align}

Now, what these tell us depends on how the wave strikes the surface. If, as we chose above, have a wave that hits the surface at an exact 90° angle, we say that the wave is at normal incidence. This is the easiest case and in general not too unrealistic either in some artificial conditions, so that's the one we start with.

Normal incidence

When incidence is normal, the two perpendicular boundary conditions don't matter since there is no perpendicular component. The parallel electric field condition implies

E~0,I+E~0,R=E~0,T\tilde{E}_{0,I}+\tilde{E}_{0,R}=\tilde{E}_{0,T}

and the parallel magnetic field implies

1μ1(n1cE~0,In1cE~0,R)=1μ2n2cE~0,T\frac{1}{\mu_{1}}\left( \frac{n_{1}}{c}\tilde{E}_{0,I}- \frac{n_{1}}{c}\tilde{E}_{0,R} \right)=\frac{1}{\mu_{2}} \frac{n_{2}}{c}\tilde{E}_{0,T}

If we define

βμ1n2μ2n1\beta\equiv \frac{\mu_{1}n_{2}}{\mu_{2}n_{1}}

this simplifies to

E~0,IE~0,R=βE~0,T\tilde{E}_{0,I}-\tilde{E}_{0,R}=\beta \tilde{E}_{0,T}

We can solve these to express reflected and transmitted amplitude in terms of the incident one:

E~0,R=(1β1+β)E~0,I,E~0,T=(21+β)E~0,I\boxed{\tilde{E}_{0,R}=\left( \frac{1-\beta}{1+\beta} \right)\tilde{E}_{0,I},\qquad \tilde{E}_{0,T}=\left( \frac{2}{1+\beta} \right)\tilde{E}_{0,I}}

These are the amplitudes we were looking for. These are true in general for electromagnetic sine waves at normal incidence. We can however squeeze more physical significance out of these. This is because in most materials, the relative permeability is essentially one, and so μμ0\mu \simeq \mu_{0}. Thus, β\beta simplifies down to βn2/n1\beta \simeq n_{2}/n_{1} and our amplitudes become

E~0,R(n1n2n1+n2)E~0,I,E~0,T(2n1n1+n2)E~0,I\tilde{E}_{0,R}\simeq\left( \frac{n_{1}-n_{2}}{n_{1}+n_{2}} \right)\tilde{E}_{0,I},\qquad \tilde{E}_{0,T}\simeq\left( \frac{2n_{1}}{n_{1}+n_{2}} \right)\tilde{E}_{0,I}

Don't let the approximate equals sign fool you: these are perfectly valid equations in most materials. These of course fail when μr1\mu_{r}\gg1, as is the case in many metals and generally all strong magnetic amplifiers, but most other materials have quite negligible relative permeabilities, so these are safe to use. If n1<n2n_{1}<n_{2}, the reflected wave is flipped upside down compared to the incident wave (a minus sign on complex amplitude corresponds to a π\pi phase shift). If n1>n2n_{1}>n_{2}, then the phase is the same. The real parts are

E0,Rn1n2n1+n2E0,I,E0,T(2n1n1+n2)E0,IE_{0,R}\simeq \left\lvert \frac{n_{1}-n_{2}}{n_{1}+n_{2}} \right\rvert E_{0,I},\qquad E_{0,T}\simeq \left( \frac{2n_{1}}{n_{1}+n_{2}} \right) E_{0,I}

The amplitudes themselves are theoretically important, but in practice one generally cares about the irradiance of the wave. The amplitude uniquely determines the irradiance according to

II=ε1c2n1E0,I2,IR=ε1c2n1E0,R2,IT=ε2c2n2E0,T2\boxed{I_{I}=\frac{\varepsilon_{1} c}{2n_{1}}E_{0,I}^{2},\qquad I_{R}=\frac{\varepsilon_{1} c}{2n_{1}}E_{0,R}^{2},\qquad I_{T}=\frac{\varepsilon_{2} c}{2n_{2}}E_{0,T}^{2}}

More so than the irradiances themselves though, it's interesting to see how they change after reflection or transmission. We do this by finding the ratios between incident and reflected/transmitted irradiance:

RIRII=(E0,RE0,I)2=(n1n2n1+n2)2,TITII=ε2n1ε1n2(E0,TE0,I)2=4n1n2(n1+n2)2\boxed{R\equiv \frac{I_{R}}{I_{I}}=\left( \frac{E_{0,R}}{E_{0,I}} \right)^{2}=\left( \frac{n_{1}-n_{2}}{n_{1}+n_{2}} \right)^{2},\qquad T\equiv \frac{I_{T}}{I_{I}}=\frac{\varepsilon_{2}n_{1}}{\varepsilon_{1}n_{2}}\left( \frac{E_{0,T}}{E_{0,I}} \right)^{2}=\frac{4n_{1}n_{2}}{(n_{1}+n_{2})^{2}}}

These are known as the reflection and transmission coefficients (or reflectance and transmittance) and represent the fraction of the irradiance that is transferred to the reflected and transmitted waves on interface interaction. The ratios of the electric fields are instead called the Fresnel coefficients, and the reflectance and transmittance are their squares. Note that, since energy must be conserved, these coefficients abide by

R+T=1R+T=1

as can be shown by doing the math directly.

Now, to be a little pedantic, calling IRI_{R} and ITI_{T} "irradiances" is technically wrong here because both reflected and transmitted waves are outgoing, not ingoing. Irradiance is specifically the energy flux incident on a surface. Flux that is exiting a surface is called radiant exitance2. For correctness, we can call IRI_{R} reflected exitance and ITI_{T} transmitted exitance. If you are confused at the nomenclature, don't worry, radiometry (the study of electromagnetic radiation) is confusing. I have written a Radiometric nomenclature survival guide to help.

Oblique incidence

Now that we have developed a theory in normal incidence, let's twist the surface a bit so that it is no longer perpendicular to the radiation. We call θI\theta_{I} the angle of incidence, the angle between the wavevector and the surface normal. Normal incidence is when θI=0\theta_{I}=0. The reflected and transmitted waves then emanate at their own angles of reflection θR\theta_{R} and transmission θT\theta_{T} (also called angle of refraction).

Suppose we have a generic incident sine wave

E~I(r,t)=E~0,Iei(kIrωt),B~I(r,t)=n1c(k^I×E~I)\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{I}(\mathbf{r},t)=\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0,I}e^{i(\mathbf{k}_{I}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t)},\qquad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{I}(\mathbf{r},t)=\frac{n_{1}}{c}(\hat{\mathbf{k}}_{I}\times \tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{I})

which induces a reflected wave

E~R(r,t)=E~0,Rei(kRrωt),B~R(r,t)=n1c(k^R×E~R)\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{R}(\mathbf{r},t)=\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0,R}e^{i(\mathbf{k}_{R}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t)},\qquad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{R}(\mathbf{r},t)=\frac{n_{1}}{c}(\hat{\mathbf{k}}_{R}\times \tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{R})

and a transmitted wave

E~T(r,t)=E~0,Tei(kTrωt),B~T(r,t)=n2c(k^T×E~T)\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{T}(\mathbf{r},t)=\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0,T}e^{i(\mathbf{k}_{T}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t)},\qquad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{T}(\mathbf{r},t)=\frac{n_{2}}{c}(\hat{\mathbf{k}}_{T}\times \tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{T})

all at the same frequency ω\omega.

Diagram Oblique incidence EM wave.svg

The wavevectors are all connected by

kIn1=kRn1=kTn2=ωkI=kR=n1n2kT(1)\frac{k_{I}}{n_{1}}=\frac{k_{R}}{n_{1}}=\frac{k_{T}}{n_{2}}=\omega \quad\Rightarrow \quad k_{I}=k_{R}=\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}k_{T}\tag{1}

These waves must obey the boundary conditions, so E~I+E~R\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{I}+\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{R} and B~I+B~R\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{I}+\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{R} must be joined with E~T\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{T} and B~T\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{T} in a way that satisfies the conditions. Altogether we get

Aei(kIrωt)+Bei(kRrωt)=Cei(kTrωt)Ae^{i(\mathbf{k}_{I}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t)}+Be^{i(\mathbf{k}_{R}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t)}=Ce^{i(\mathbf{k}_{T}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t)}

where A,BA,B and CC are some values that we'll determine later. Right now we care about the exponentials. For this equality to be true, we need

A+B=C,kIrωt=kRrωt=kTrωtA+B=C,\quad \mathbf{k}_{I}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t=\mathbf{k}_{R}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t =\mathbf{k}_{T}\cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t > Divide by $i$ to get > $$aAe^{ iax }+bBe^{ ibx }=cCe^{icx}

Notice how the right hand side is the same as the starting equation, just multiplied by cc. So, we can say

> Since $A,B\neq 0$ and $e^{iax},e^{ ibx }$ are nonzero for all $x$, the only way this is true is if $a=b=c$. The time-frequency part is equal and drops out, so the only part that the exponentials need to match is

\mathbf{k}{I}\cdot \mathbf{r}=\mathbf{k}{R}\cdot \mathbf{r}=\mathbf{k}_{T}\cdot \mathbf{r}\quad\text{on the surface}\tag{2}

WritingthecomponentsoutgivesusWriting the components out gives us

yk_{I,y}+zk_{I,z}=yk_{R,y}+zk_{R,z}=yk_{T,y}+zk_{T,z}

where the $x$ components are zero because we are on the surface $x=0$. This is true only if the components are individually equal, so when $y=0$ we get

zk_{I,z}=zk_{R,z}=zk_{T,z}

and when $z=0$ we get

yk_{I,y}=yk_{R,y}=yk_{T,y}\tag{3}

We haven't had any specific request on the [[frame of reference]] up until now, so let's exploit this freedom to reorient the axes just so that $\mathbf{k}_{I}$ is on the $xy$ plane. This implies $k_{I,z}=0$ and so $k_{I,z}=k_{R,z}=k_{T,z}=0$, which is to say that $\mathbf{k}_{R}$ and $\mathbf{k}_{T}$ must be *coplanar* with $\mathbf{k}_{I}$, that is, lie in the same plane. > [!info] First law of geometrical optics > The incident, reflected and transmitted wave are coplanar. The plane they share is called the **plane of incidence**. (Of course this is true in any frame of reference, the choice from before was just for convenience.) Since we are now on a plane, we can express the components of $\mathbf{k}$ using angles on this plane, which is precisely what $(3)$ is saying:

k_{I}\sin \theta_{I}=k_{R}\sin \theta_{R}=k_{T}\sin \theta_{T}

However, we know that $k_{I}=k_{R}$ due to $(1)$ so the sines must themselves be equal and with them, their angle: > [!info] Second law of geometrical optics > The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection, $\theta_{I}=\theta_{R}$. This is also known as the **[[law of reflection]]**. Since $k_{I}=k_{R}=\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}k_{T}$ we can also state one final law: > [!info] Third law of geometrical optics > The angle of incidence is tied to the angle of refraction by the ratio of refractive indexes: > $$\frac{\sin\theta_{T}}{\sin \theta_{I}}=\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}

This is also known as Snell's law. These are the three laws of classical geometric optics. These have been known for a very long time, even before the rise of modern electrodynamics, and it is interesting to note how they arise spontaneously only though the wave form of Maxwell's equations. In fact, none of this derivation even really cares about electric or magnetic fields. The only prerequisite here is the wave equation and the quite generic boundary conditions we used, which can represent a whole host of waves, like sea waves or sound waves or what have you. In fact, these laws are essentially universal across all kinds of waves, provided you can express them as sinusoidal plane waves.

According to (2)(2), the exponential factors cancel out and we are left with the leading coefficients. These obey the boundary conditions specific to electrodynamics

ε1E1ε2E2=σfE1E2=0B1B2=01μ1B11μ2B2=0\begin{align} \varepsilon_{1}E_{1}^{\perp}-\varepsilon_{2}E_{2}^{\perp} & =\sigma_{f} & \mathbf{E}_{1}^{\parallel}-\mathbf{E}_{2}^{\parallel} & =\mathbf{0} \\ B_{1}^{\perp}-B_{2}^{\perp} & =0 & \frac{1}{\mu_{1}}\mathbf{B}_{1}^{\parallel}- \frac{1}{\mu_{2}}\mathbf{B}_{2}^{\parallel}&=\mathbf{0} \end{align}

which using our values and our frame of reference become

ε1(E~0,I+E~0,R)x=ε2(E~0,T)x(E~0,I+E~0,R)y,z=(E~0,T)y,z(B~0,I+B~0,R)x=(B~0,T)x1μ1(B~0,I+B~0,R)y,z=1μ2(B~0,T)y,z\begin{align} \varepsilon_{1}(\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0,I}+\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0,R})_{x}& =\varepsilon_{2}(\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0,T})_{x} & (\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0,I}+\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0,R})_{y,z} & =(\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0,T})_{y,z} \\ (\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{0,I}+\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{0,R})_{x} & =(\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{0,T})_{x} & \frac{1}{\mu_{1}}(\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{0,I}+\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{0,R})_{y,z}&=\frac{1}{\mu_{2}}(\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{0,T})_{y,z} \end{align}

Suppose that the incident wave is polarized parallel to the plane of incidence. Then, the reflected and transmitted waves must themselves be polarized in the same plane3. In this case, we get

ε1(E~0,IsinθI+E~0,RsinθR)=ε2(E~0,TsinθT)E~0,IcosθI+E~0,RcosθR=E~0,TcosθT0=0n1μ1(E~0,IE~0,R)=n2μ2E~0,T\begin{align} \varepsilon_{1}(-\tilde{E}_{0,I}\sin \theta_{I}+\tilde{E}_{0,R}\sin \theta_{R}) & =\varepsilon_{2}(-\tilde{E}_{0,T}\sin \theta_{T}) & \tilde{E}_{0,I}\cos \theta_{I}+\tilde{E}_{0,R}\cos \theta_{R} & =\tilde{E}_{0,T}\cos \theta_{T} \\ 0 & =0 & \frac{n_{1}}{\mu_{1}}(\tilde{E}_{0,I}-\tilde{E}_{0,R})&=\frac{n_{2}}{\mu_{2}}\tilde{E}_{0,T} \end{align}

Using the law of reflection and Snell's law, top left and bottom right both become

E~0,IE~0,R=βE~0,T\tilde{E}_{0,I}-\tilde{E}_{0,R}=\beta \tilde{E}_{0,T}

where β=μ1n2/μ2n1\beta=\mu_{1}n_{2}/\mu_{2}n_{1}. Meanwhile, top right becomes

E~0,I+E~0,R=αE~0,T\tilde{E}_{0,I}+\tilde{E}_{0,R}=\alpha \tilde{E}_{0,T}

where α=cosθT/cosθI\alpha=\cos \theta_{T}/\cos \theta_{I}. Solving these to express the amplitudes in terms of E~0,I\tilde{E}_{0,I} yields

E~0,R=(αβα+β)E~0,I,E~0,T=(2α+β)E~0,I\boxed{\tilde{E}_{0,R}=\left( \frac{\alpha-\beta}{\alpha+\beta} \right)\tilde{E}_{0,I},\qquad \tilde{E}_{0,T}=\left( \frac{2}{\alpha+\beta} \right)\tilde{E}_{0,I}}

These are known as Fresnel's equations for polarization in the plane of incidence. There are two more, for polarization perpendicular to the plane of incidence. From the sign of the coefficients, we can see that the transmitted wave must always be in phase with the incident one (since 2/(α+β)>02/(\alpha+\beta)>0), but the reflected may or may not be depending on the sign of αβ\alpha-\beta. If α>β\alpha>\beta, then it is in phase, otherwise it is out of phase by precisely half a cycle (it's "upside down") since changing the sign of the amplitude in a sine wave is like shift by half a cycle (π\pi or 180°). Of course, if set θI=0\theta_{I}=0, then α=1\alpha=1 and we get the equations we found in the normal incidence case.

Note how since cosθI\cos \theta_{I} is at the denominator in α\alpha, if θI\theta_{I} approaches π/2\pi/2 (or 90°), the cosθI\cos \theta_{I} approaches zero and α\alpha diverges. In that case, the coefficient on the transmitted wave collapses to zero and only the reflected wave remains: this is called total reflection and you can pretty easily experience it yourself by taking any partially reflective object and rotating it while under a light. Eventually, you'll see nothing but reflected light.

Curiously, there is another angle worth discussing. When α=β\alpha=\beta, we get

sin2θB=1β2(n1/n2)2β2\sin ^{2}\theta_{B}=\frac{1-\beta ^{2}}{\left( n_{1}/n_{2}\right)^{2}-\beta ^{2}}

In most materials, μ1μ2\mu_{1}\simeq \mu_{2}, so βn2/n1\beta \simeq n_{2}/n_{1} and this simplifies down to

tanθBn2n1θBarctan(n2n1)\tan \theta_{B}\simeq \frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}\quad\Rightarrow \quad \theta_{B}\simeq\arctan\left( \frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}} \right)

This angle is known as Brewster's angle and it is special because here, the reflected wave is fully extinguished. This is the other half of the medal: at 90°, the transmitted wave vanishes, and at Brewster's angle, the reflected wave vanishes.

Plot Amplitudes in EM wave incidence.png|500

A plot of the real amplitudes ratios of incident, reflected an transmitted waves with respect to the incidence angle. Negative values imply an out-of-phase wave; the amplitude itself is the absolute value. From Introduction to Electrodynamics 4th ed., Griffiths.

Actually, there is yet another interesting angle to talk about, although it is not universal. When a wave moves from an "optically dense" material (say, water) to an "optically thin" one (say, air), which is to say when n1>n2n_{1}>n_{2}, the transmitted wavevector tends to move away from the normal and tends to become parallel to the interface. This isn't asymptotic: the wavevector becomes exactly parallel with the surface (θT=π/2\theta_{T}=\pi/2 or 90°) at the critical angle

θCarcsin(n2n1)\theta_{C}\equiv \arcsin\left( \frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}} \right)

as per Snell's law. On incidence at any angle greater than the critical one (θI>θC\theta_{I}>\theta_{C}), there is no transmission, just like normally when reaching 90°. Since air is quite optically thin, this typically happens when a ray of light attempts to leave a material (almost certainly optically denser) and move into the air. As such, in some conditions, it's possible that a ray of light might remain "trapped" inside the material if it only ever bounces at angles greater than the critical one. This is the idea behind total internal reflection, a technique used to transfer light beams from one place to another without energy loss by making sure all internal incidence is at an angle greater than critical (if you're familiar with fiber optics, this is how it works).

This said, while the wave is fully reflected, the fields are actually not zero in material 2. They form a so-called evanescent wave, a wave that attenuates extremely rapidly and transports no energy into material 2. It can be constructed by setting kT=ωn2/ck_{T}=\omega n_{2}/c and kT=kT(sinθT y^+cosθT z^)\mathbf{k}_{T}=k_{T}(\sin \theta_{T}\ \hat{\mathbf{y}}+\cos \theta_{T}\ \hat{\mathbf{z}}). This causes Snell's law

sinθT=n1n2sinθI\sin \theta_{T}=\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}\sin \theta_{I}

to report an imaginary transmission angle when θI>θC\theta_{I}>\theta_{C}. Of course, it no longer makes sense as an angle (at least a real one).

Finally, we close this off with the irradiance of the incident wave:

II=Sx^=ε1c2n1E0,I2cosθI\boxed{I_{I}=\langle \mathbf{S} \rangle\cdot \hat{\mathbf{x}}=\frac{\varepsilon_{1}c}{2n_{1}}E_{0,I}^{2}\cos \theta_{I}}

The reflected and transmitted exitances:

IR=ε1c2n1E0,I2cosθR,IT=ε2c2n2E0,I2cosθT\boxed{I_{R}=\frac{\varepsilon_{1}c}{2n_{1}}E_{0,I}^{2}\cos \theta_{R},\qquad I_{T}=\frac{\varepsilon_{2}c}{2n_{2}}E_{0,I}^{2}\cos \theta_{T}}

And the reflectance and transmittance:

R=IRII=(αβα+β)2,T=ITII=αβ(2α+β)2\boxed{R=\frac{I_{R}}{I_{I}}=\left( \frac{\alpha-\beta}{\alpha+\beta} \right)^{2},\qquad T=\frac{I_{T}}{I_{I}}=\alpha \beta\left( \frac{2}{\alpha+\beta} \right)^{2}}

In conductors

Now that we're done with dielectrics, we move on to conductors. Maxwell's wave equations for conductors are

2E=εμ2Et2+μσEt,2B=εμ2Bt2+μσBt\nabla ^{2}\mathbf{E}=\varepsilon \mu \frac{ \partial ^{2}\mathbf{E} }{ \partial t^{2} }+\mu \sigma \frac{ \partial \mathbf{E} }{ \partial t },\qquad\nabla ^{2}\mathbf{B}=\varepsilon \mu \frac{ \partial ^{2}\mathbf{B} }{ \partial t^{2} }+\mu \sigma \frac{ \partial \mathbf{B} }{ \partial t }

They differ by having an additional first derivative in time on top of the second derivative. These are no longer the standard wave equation we've gotten used to and are in fact a generalization of it. Nevertheless, they still admit plane wave solutions, so that's what we'll follow through with:

E~(z,t)=E~0ei(k~zωt),B~(z,t)=B~0ei(k~zωt)\tilde{\mathbf{E}}(z,t)=\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{0}e^{i(\tilde{k}z-\omega t)},\qquad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}(z,t)=\tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{0}e^{i(\tilde{k}z-\omega t)}

You'll notice an unfamiliar tilde over the kk: this is because in order for a plane wave to satisfy one of these equations, it must have a complex wavenumber. Before moving on, we should probably investigate this odd quantity further.

Substituting the plane wave, our wave equations become (we'll use the electric field, but the magnetic field is identical):

2E=2[E0ei(k~zωt)]=k~2E\nabla ^{2}\mathbf{E}=\nabla ^{2}[\mathbf{E}_{0}e^{i(\tilde{k}z-\omega t)}]=-\tilde{k}^{2}\mathbf{E}

Be careful with k~2\tilde{k}^{2}! It's a complex value, not a real one, so the square is a little more complicated. When plugging this Laplacian in the wave equation, we get

k~2=μεω2+iμσω\tilde{k}^{2}=\mu \varepsilon \omega ^{2}+i\mu \sigma \omega

We'll split the real and imaginary parts into k~=k+iκ\tilde{k}=k+i\kappa so that the square is

k~2=(k+iκ)(kiκ)=k2+2ikκκ2\tilde{k}^{2}=(k+i\kappa)(k-i\kappa)=k^{2}+2ik\kappa-\kappa ^{2}

We now have two results for k~2\tilde{k}^{2} that we can compare to get:

k2+2ikκκ2=μεω2+iμσωk^{2}+2ik\kappa-\kappa ^{2}=\mu \varepsilon \omega ^{2}+i\mu \sigma \omega

Solving for real and imaginary parts separately gives us

{k2κ2=μεω22kκ=μσω{(k+κ)(kκ)=μεω2κ=μσω2k\begin{cases} k^{2}-\kappa ^{2}=\mu \varepsilon \omega ^{2} \\ 2k\kappa=\mu \sigma \omega \end{cases}\quad\to \quad\begin{cases} (k+\kappa)(k-\kappa)=\mu \varepsilon \omega ^{2} \\ \kappa=\frac{\mu \sigma \omega}{2k} \end{cases}

The real and imaginary wavenumbers end up being

k=ωεμ21+(σωε)2+1,κ=ωεμ21+(σωε)21(4) \boxed{k=\omega \sqrt{ \frac{\varepsilon \mu}{2} }\sqrt{ \sqrt{ 1+\left( \frac{\sigma}{\omega \varepsilon} \right)^{2} }+1 },\qquad \kappa=\omega \sqrt{ \frac{\varepsilon \mu}{2} }\sqrt{ \sqrt{ 1+\left( \frac{\sigma}{\omega \varepsilon} \right)^{2} }-1 }}\tag{4}

(The only difference between the two is the plus or minus at the end). These are significant results for a couple of reasons, especially the imaginary part. In fact, if we go back to the oscillating fields

E(x,t)=E0ei[(k+iκ)xωt]=E0ei(kxωt)eκx(5)\mathbf{E}(x,t)=\mathbf{E}_{0}e^{i[(k+i\kappa)x-\omega t]}=\mathbf{E}_{0}e^{i(kx-\omega t)}e^{-\kappa x}\tag{5}

we have the usual plane wave with a real wavenumber kk, but now it's weighed by eκxe^{-\kappa x}. Specifically, this term says that as xx grows larger (i.e. the wave propagates), it is suppressed, with a larger κ\kappa incurring a more significant suppression; this phenomenon is known as the skin effect:

1/e1/e is qualitatively around one third, so the wave's amplitude cuts down by a third every skin depth. This leads to a very fast suppression of the wave, doubly so since skin depths are typically very small, generally millimeters or fractions of millimeters. Lower frequencies have higher skin depths and viceversa4.

Moreover, we see that the wavevector is dependent on ω\omega multiplied by a factor made up of ε\varepsilon, μ\mu and σ\sigma. These three parameters determine the materials behavior against incoming electromagnetic waves. You could consider them constants, but you'd be slightly wrong. These are actually measured to be mildly frequency-dependent: εε(ω)\varepsilon\equiv \varepsilon(\omega), μμ(ω)\mu\equiv \mu(\omega) and σσ(ω)\sigma\equiv \sigma(\omega). As such, k~\tilde{k} is nonlinearly dependent on ω\omega. This leads to a phenomenon known as dispersion, which occurs when the phase velocity of the wave in the material is dependent on the frequency, vpvp(ω)v_{p}\equiv v_{p}(\omega). The relation kk(ω)k\equiv k(\omega) is called the dispersion relation. In our case, since vp=c/nv_{p}=c/n, this is like saying that dispersion occurs when the refractive index depends on frequency, nn(ω)n\equiv n(\omega). (And in fact, remember that n=εrμrεrn=\sqrt{ \varepsilon_{r}\mu_{r} }\simeq \sqrt{ \varepsilon_{r} }, so if εr\varepsilon_{r} depends on ω\omega, as we've claimed, so does nn.)

Equation (5)(5) is universally correct for the conductor wave equations. Maxwell's equations impose further constraints on which waves are permitted; this is the same argument as in the beginning of > In the vacuum. Assuming the wave propagates on xx, due to E=0\nabla\cdot \mathbf{E}=0 and B=0\nabla\cdot \mathbf{B}=0, there can be no xx component to the fields. Similarly, using the curls we get that the fields are perpendicular to each other at all times. For instance, setting the electric field as polarized over y^\hat{\mathbf{y}} and using its curl we find

E~(x,t)=E~0ei(kxωt)eκxy^,B~(x,t)=k~ωE~0ei(kxωt)eκxz^(6)\tilde{\mathbf{E}}(x,t)=\tilde{E}_{0}e^{i(kx-\omega t)}e^{-\kappa x}\hat{\mathbf{y}},\qquad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}(x,t)=\frac{\tilde{k}}{\omega}\tilde{E}_{0}e^{i(kx-\omega t)}e^{-\kappa x}\hat{\mathbf{z}}\tag{6}

We can further analyze the complex wavenumber k~\tilde{k} by expressing it in polar form:

k~=k~eiϕ=Keiϕ\tilde{k}=\lvert \tilde{k} \rvert e^{i\phi}=Ke^{i\phi}

The modulus is

K=k2+κ2=ωεμ1+(σεω)2K=\sqrt{ k^{2}+\kappa ^{2} }=\omega \sqrt{ \varepsilon \mu \sqrt{ 1+\left( \frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon \omega} \right)^{2} } }

and the angle is

ϕ=arctan(κk)\phi=\arctan\left( \frac{\kappa}{k} \right)

Using (6)(6), we see that the complex amplitudes E~0=E0eiδE\tilde{E}_{0}=E_{0}e^{i\delta_{E}} and B~0=B0eiδB\tilde{B}_{0}=B_{0}e^{i\delta_{B}} are related by

B~0=k~E~0ωB0eiδB=KeiϕωE0eiδE=KE0ωei(δE+ϕ)\tilde{B}_{0}=\frac{\tilde{k}\tilde{E}_{0}}{\omega}\quad\to \quad B_{0}e^{i\delta_{B}}=\frac{Ke^{i\phi}}{\omega}E_{0}e^{i\delta_{E}}=\frac{KE_{0}}{\omega}e^{i(\delta_{E}+\phi)}

Evidently, the phase is shifted by an angle ϕ\phi determined by the wavevector and the fields are out of phase by precisely this angle: δBδE=ϕ\delta_{B}-\delta_{E}=\phi. Specifically, the magnetic field is lagging behind the electric one.

The real parts of waves incident on a conductor are

E(x,t)=E0eκxcos(kxωt+δE)y^,B(x,t)=B0eκxcos(kxωt+δE+ϕ)z^\boxed{\mathbf{E}(x,t)=E_{0}e^{-\kappa x}\cos(kx-\omega t+\delta_{E})\hat{\mathbf{y}},\qquad \mathbf{B}(x,t)=B_{0}e^{-\kappa x}\cos(kx-\omega t+\delta_{E}+\phi)\hat{\mathbf{z}}}

The irradiance can be found to be

IE2T=E022e2κtI\propto \langle E^{2} \rangle _{T}=\frac{E_{0}^{2}}{2}e^{-2\kappa t}

where E2T\langle E^{2} \rangle_{T} is the time average over a period TT, and

I(x)=k2μωe2κx=k2μωex/αI(x)=\frac{k}{2\mu \omega}e^{-2\kappa x}=\frac{k}{2\mu \omega}e^{-x/\alpha}

α=1/2κ\alpha=1/2\kappa is the called the penetration depth of the wave. It is the characteristic length of suppression of irradiance when moving through a conductor; it's basically the skin depth of irradiance. Just like skin depth, it is usually less than or a few millimeters. For UV waves on a typical conductor, it's around 0.6 mm0.6\text{ mm} and for infrared waves, it's about 6 mm6\text{ mm}.

Interface reflection and transmission

Like all surfaces, an electromagnetic wave can be reflected by a conducting surface too. Unlike dielectrics however, conductors show some remarkable behavior due to their near-immediate reallocation of charge. The boundary conditions of a conductor are the general ones

ε1E1ε2E2=σfE1E2=0B1B2=01μ1B11μ2B2=Kf×n^\begin{align} \varepsilon_{1}E_{1}^{\perp}-\varepsilon_{2}E_{2}^{\perp} & =\sigma_{f} & \mathbf{E}_{1}^{\parallel}-\mathbf{E}_{2}^{\parallel} & =\mathbf{0} \\ B_{1}^{\perp}-B_{2}^{\perp} & =0 & \frac{1}{\mu_{1}}\mathbf{B}_{1}^{\parallel}- \frac{1}{\mu_{2}}\mathbf{B}_{2}^{\parallel}&=\mathbf{K}_{f}\times \hat{\mathbf{n}} \end{align}

since we cannot arbitrarily choose for σf\sigma_{f} and Kf\mathbf{K}_{f} to be zero (don't confuse σf\sigma_{f}, free surface charge, with σ\sigma, conductivity, and n^\hat{\mathbf{n}}, the surface normal, with the polarization vector!).

We'll work with ohmic conductors. These work with Ohm's law Jf=σE\mathbf{J}_{f}=\sigma \mathbf{E} and therefore implies Kf=0\mathbf{K}_{f}=0 since if if were nonzero, we'd need an infinite electric current at the boundary. In fact, consider a slice of infinitesimal thickness ll of the material right on the surface. The surface current is approximately Kf=Jfl=σlE\mathbf{K}_{f}=\mathbf{J}_{f}l=\sigma l\mathbf{E}. For this to be exact we need l0l\to 0, which implies Kf0\mathbf{K}_{f}\to 0 unless E\mathbf{E}\to \infty, which is of course unphysical, so Kf=0\mathbf{K}_{f}=0.

Normal incidence

We start by investigating normal incidence, θI=0\theta_{I}=0. As usual, we pick a wave traveling forwards on x^\hat{\mathbf{x}} with the conductor's surface on the yzyz plane. We polarize the wave on y^\hat{\mathbf{y}}. The coupled fields are

E~I(x,t)=E~0,Iei(k1xωt)y^,B~I(x,t)=n1cE~0,Iei(k1xωt)z^\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{I}(x,t)=\tilde{E}_{0,I}e^{i(k_{1}x-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{y}},\qquad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{I}(x,t)=\frac{n_{1}}{c} \tilde{E}_{0,I}e^{i(k_{1}x-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{z}}

The reflected wave will be

E~R(x,t)=E~0,Rei(k1xωt)y^,B~R(x,t)=n1cE~0,Rei(k1xωt)z^\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{R}(x,t)=\tilde{E}_{0,R}e^{i(-k_{1}x-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{y}},\qquad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{R}(x,t)=-\frac{n_{1}}{c} \tilde{E}_{0,R}e^{i(-k_{1}x-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{z}}

and the transmitted one

E~T(x,t)=E~0,Tei(k~2xωt)y^,B~T(x,t)=k~2ωE~0,Tei(k~2xωt)z^\tilde{\mathbf{E}}_{T}(x,t)=\tilde{E}_{0,T}e^{i(\tilde{k}_{2}x-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{y}},\qquad \tilde{\mathbf{B}}_{T}(x,t)=\frac{\tilde{k}_{2}}{\omega} \tilde{E}_{0,T}e^{i(\tilde{k}_{2}x-\omega t)}\hat{\mathbf{z}}

The complex wavevector k~2\tilde{k}_{2} denotes the attenuation of the wave. At x=0x=0, the waves must abide by the boundary conditions. E=0E^{\perp}=0 on both sides since we are at normal incidence, which implies ρf=0\rho_{f}=0 by the top left condition. Top right becomes

E~0,I+E~0,R=E~0,T\tilde{E}_{0,I}+\tilde{E}_{0,R}=\tilde{E}_{0,T}

B=0B^{\perp}=0 is also true on both sides for the same reason, so bottom left becomes trivial. Bottom right becomes

n1μ1c(E~0,IE~0,R)k~2μ2ωE~0,T=0\frac{n_{1}}{\mu_{1}c}(\tilde{E}_{0,I}-\tilde{E}_{0,R})- \frac{\tilde{k}_{2}}{\mu_{2}\omega}\tilde{E}_{0,T}=0

or, if we define

β~μ1cμ2n2ωk~2\tilde{\beta}\equiv \frac{\mu_{1}c}{\mu_{2}n_{2}\omega}\tilde{k}_{2}

we get

E~0,IE~0,R=β~E~0,T\tilde{E}_{0,I}-\tilde{E}_{0,R}=\tilde{\beta}\tilde{E}_{0,T}

Solving these yields

E~0,R=(1β~1+β~)E~0,I,E~0,T=(21+β~)E~0,I\boxed{\tilde{E}_{0,R}=\left( \frac{1-\tilde{\beta}}{1+\tilde{\beta}} \right)\tilde{E}_{0,I},\qquad \tilde{E}_{0,T}=\left( \frac{2}{1+\tilde{\beta}} \right)\tilde{E}_{0,I}}

The coefficients maintain the same shape as the dielectric case, but the β\beta parameter is now complex to take the attenuation into account. In case of a perfect conductor, σ=\sigma=\infty, so k2=κ2=k_{2}=\kappa_{2}=\infty using (4)(4), so β~=\tilde{\beta}=\infty (in the complex sense). In this case we get

E~0,R=E~0,I,E~0,T=0\tilde{E}_{0,R}=-\tilde{E}_{0,I},\qquad \tilde{E}_{0,T}=0

The wave is totally reflected with an accompanying 180° phase flip. In other words, the conductor is a perfect mirror. If you've ever wondered why metal is so shiny, this is why!

Footnotes

  1. The magnetic's field contribution being entirely determined by the electric field is a recurring theme in electrodynamics and it is no coincidence. However, the explanation must wait until relativistic electrodynamics to make any semblance of sense (but if you're eager, see Magnetism as a relativistic phenomenon).

  2. It's just a matter of perspective. The units of measurements are still the same (W/m2\text{W/m}^{2}). Many authors don't even bother and call all of these "intensity" anyway, but that's unnecessarily confusing.

  3. This can be proven by setting the new polarizations as n^R=cosθRy^+sinθRz^\hat{\mathbf{n}}_{R}=\cos \theta_{R}\hat{\mathbf{y}}+\sin \theta_{R}\hat{\mathbf{z}} and n^T=cosθTy^+sinθTz^\hat{\mathbf{n}}_{T}=\cos \theta_{T}\hat{\mathbf{y}}+\sin \theta_{T}\hat{\mathbf{z}} and applying boundary conditions to see that θT=θR=0\theta_{T}=\theta_{R}=0.

  4. This should not be confused with an evanescent wave, which is instead suppressed perpendicularly to the direction it propagates.